"Only in this way can Dracula be annihilated for good."
Still essentially what I said. And connotations aside? Nowhere did she ever say Dracula will be destroyed for good. How would she even know? "Can be" and "will be" and "could be" are not the same thing at all. They never have been the same thing until the education systems failed in recent decades. And how do you know Simon did exactly what the woman told him to? Because you played as Simon and you know you did everything right because you're infallible and because Simon -- as the protagonist of the game -- is infallible? If you or Simon were infallible, why were there multiple endings? By the very nature of the existence of multiple endings, the fallacy of infallibility is apparent.
I can jump off a skyscraper roof and live.
I could jump off a skyscraper roof and live.
I will jump off a skyscraper roof and live.
If you actually think those three statements are identical, then please, go jump off a building.
My dear friend, there's no need to be so aggressive. Trust me, telling me to jump off a roof won't help.
Without a doubt, "can" and "will" are entirely different. But then, if you hadn't yet realized it, "could" is the conditional tense of "can". So, technically, they do have the same meaning. Tsk, tsk, those educational systems nowadays...
Yet if you'd actually taken the time to follow my reasoning, you'd realize that both sentences use "can":
The simplest English translation is, "Only in this way can Dracula be annihilated for good." Semantically though, that's not quite right. Semantically, a closer translation would be, "Except by such method, there is no way Dracula can be annihilated for good."
So your approach is absurd.
What I
was asserting, however, is that both sentences imply the same thing. Let me explain:
"Only in this way can Dracula be annihilated for good." Let's have fun and translate it mathematically. Let "Dracula can be annihilated for good" be proposition p. What the sentence says is: "There exists a unique 'method' x such that p is true."
Now, for the other sentence.
"Except by such method, there is no way Dracula can be annihilated for good". Let "Dracula cannot be annihilated for good" be proposition q. What the sentence says is: "There exists a unique 'method' y such that q is false." Yet what does "q is false" mean? It means "not q" is true. And what is "not q"? Well, it's p: "Dracula can be annihilated for good".
So to conclude, we've found both sentences include one, unique case in which Dracula can be annihilated for good. So, you see, the connotation didn't matter.
That was my point.
Now, to be
absolutely rigorous, I must admit that "can" expresses a possibility, not a certainty. So, to your credit, it is possible that the method in question was used against Dracula, but failed to work.
Yet we need to look a bit further here: why on earth would Konami bother to explain that
only one, unique method can be used to permanently defeat Dracula, adding that Simon
did use that method, if it didn't want to imply that Dracula
was, in the end, permanently defeated?
Here lies that little jump in logic you have to make to understand Nagumo's point. It's not perfectly rigorous, but it makes more sense than anything else.
As for your "infallibility" argument, I don't understand it. Why would it matter whether Simon or the player were fallible or not? We're talking about a video game that has a
set story to tell. The fact that the game has multiple endings means nothing: every game in the series has had a single, canon ending. Or are you telling me that DoS actually isn't possible because Soma turned into Dracula before it?